MuseFan |
|
|
Joined: 18 Jan 2009 United Kingdom Karma: 4
|
If when you move down or up a semim tone on the guitar and it is one fret and a whole tone is 2 frets is this because when your moving say from g to a it is 2 frets because of the sharp if thats the case when you move a whole tone up from say e to f is that only one fret? |
keithmark13 |
|
|
Joined: 23 Mar 2009 United States Lessons: 1 Karma: 1
|
to e to f there is no sharp/flat. Meaning there is only 1 fret difference from an E to an F, of B to a C for that matter. All the other intervals between notes is 2 frets. So by the sounds of things you have the idea right. |
JazzMaverick |
|
|
Joined: 28 Aug 2008 United Kingdom Lessons: 24 Licks: 37 Karma: 47 Moderator
|
a semitone on guitar is always 1 fret, and a whole tone is always 2. always. Doesn't matter what note you're on. But check out my Grade 1 lesson for more info on that and you'll understand it completely :) |
MuseFan |
|
|
Joined: 18 Jan 2009 United Kingdom Karma: 4
|
ok cool thanks guys
so jazz does that mean that a whole tone from e would take you 2 frets up to f#? |
carlsnow |
|
|
Joined: 29 Apr 2009 United States Lessons: 2 Karma: 23
|
@ MuseFan
YES
In the same way B to C would = 1/2 while B-C# would = whole
always(as JM said) true.
|
MuseFan |
|
|
Joined: 18 Jan 2009 United Kingdom Karma: 4
|
Cool maked a lot more sense now lol thanks a lot guys |
|
|
Copyright © 2004-2017 All-Guitar-Chords.com. All rights reserved.